I am following another estate (Shunfu Ville) and the goings-on in that collective sale could be duplicated in our estate the way things are going.
Their initial RPº garnered 65% signatures before stalling. They churned out a Supplemental CSA with a higher RP1 and managed to get the extra 15% needed to reach 80% the DAY BEFORE the expiry date. How magical.
They went for a public tender on the strength of the 80% and received no bids.
They then churned out a second Supplemental agreement to lower the reserve price to RP2 and garnered only 35% support. Not happy with this they went for a third Supplemental agreement with a higher RP3 (but lower than the initial RPº). This final RP3 only garnered 55% signatures.
They went for a Public Tender again ... on the strength of the first 80% (RP1) ... and received no bids.
I think they went for a second Public Tender .... and again received no bids.
One more fact: the valuation at close of tender was substantially lower than even the lowest RP2. When the marketing agent is the one calling the shots with regard to recommending/selecting an 'independent' Valuer - then this will always be the case.
After the failed public tender, a Developer came in with a private bid which equaled the RP3. This offer came with do-or-die conditions attached. The SC held an EOGM to discuss this offer and used the RP3 55% as a stepping stone and managed to persuade a further 25% to sign.
So the SPA was signed and an application made to the STB just days within the 1 year time period. (Though I would argue that the RP2 is a new contract and starts a new 1 yr from date of ... see post
here).
Anyway the extra time was not needed as the application was in time from date of first signature of RPº.
This is very worrying.
1) A higher RP is used to bait SPs into signing and this is used to make multiple attempts at a public tender, even after lower supplemental agreements have been entered into.
2) The Developer is obviously privy to the RP as he made an offer equal to the second lowest RP3.
3) No public tender was held to determine if this was the best price for the estate - the tender was for the higher RP1, and so who knows, there could have been other bids if the tender price was set lower.
In other words, the market was tested at that level, and the SC failed to ascertain if this was the BEST price achievable.